Critical Thinking Question
The prevalence of most psychological disorders has increased since the 1980s. However, as discussed in this section, scientific publications regarding dissociative amnesia peaked in the mid-1990s but then declined steeply through 2003. In addition, no fictional or nonfictional description of individuals showing dissociative amnesia following a trauma exists prior to 1800. How would you explain this phenomenon?
Several explanations are possible. One explanation is that perhaps there is little scientific interest in this phenomenon, maybe because it has yet to gain consistent scientific acceptance. Another possible explanation is that perhaps the dissociative amnesia was fashionable at the time publications dealing with this topic peaked (1990s); perhaps since that time it has become less fashionable.